ALE Doctrine Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Who has admin control over the grey eagles?
• What is the name of the last phase of the Pilot in Command Program?
• Which of the following is a defensive option among the five options after contact?
• A contact point is used in conjunction with which point?
• What is the primary purpose of security?
• Disengagement Criteria specifies conditions in which the unit will stop engaging in their actions to prevent decisive engagement.
• Which form of Recon is used when the enemy situation is vague or information on the operational environment is limited, is time intensive, and has restrictive boundaries?
• How is a Reconnaissance in Force different from a Movement to Contact?
• Which form of reconnaissance does aviation NOT perform?
• Which of the following is NOT a BRASSCRAFO element?
• In aviation handbook naming conventions, ACP stands for which term?
• Step 4 of the Engagement Area Development Process is to:
• CATS describes which characteristics of the offense?
• Which of the following is NOT a domain of the five-domain operational framework?
• What term refers to a predetermined point on the ground that facilitates navigation, control of speed, and enroute fires?
• What term describes the unit that directly accomplishes the mission?
• What does EA stand for in a military planning context?
• Which of the following is NOT a movement technique?
• Which form of contact relates to electromagnetic signals such as radar or communications?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five domains of the operational framework?
• Which of the following is an attack employment method that uses a phased approach?
• Which symbol is used to denote a reconnaissance Observation Post on maps?
• Which type of reconnaissance uses two or more like assets and collects against the same intelligence requirement to provide depth if one element is compromised?
• Which factor is NOT listed as a consideration when selecting a Helicopter Landing Zone?
• What is the acronym for the seven fundamentals of recon?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of assigned area used by a land component or ARFOR commander?
• Which recon concept describes the ability to direct follow-on collection by another system?
• Which sequence correctly lists the steps of the Engagement Area Development Process in order?
• How many AGM-114 Hellfire missiles can the MQ-1C Gray Eagle carry?
• What is information about the friendly situation?
• PIRs are associated with what?
• Step 1 of the Engagement Area Development Process is to perform what task?
• Which of the following is a movement technique?
• The reconnaissance handover line is associated with which elements to ensure positive control of enemy contact between observers?
• Which form of Recon is used when looking for specific information, trying to understand the enemy situation, and is permissive?
• Which of the following is NOT a NORMA consideration when selecting a SBF/ABF/BP?
• In the Engagement Area Development Process, which step directly precedes Direct Fire Planning?
• Which control measure uses the Jewels naming convention to designate a restricted air route?
• Which is a reason we conduct Offensive Operations?
• What is the term for casualty movement aboard nonmedical vehicles or aircraft without en route medical care?
• Reconnaissance in Force is used to gather information about enemy Strength, Disposition, and Reactions.
• Which form of security protects routes, installations, and actions within a defined area, including aviation tasks such as route security and convoy security?
• What is the primary purpose of MEDEVAC transports?
• Which core competency is described as enabling command and control over extended ranges and complex terrain?
• Which security type is typically used at the battalion level to provide screening?
• Which recon type provides depth should one element become compromised?
• Which airframes can be utilized during an Air Assault?
• Which of the following is NOT a Fire Distribution Technique?
• What is the purpose of Conduct Rehearsal in the attack planning sequence?
• The acronym PIR stands for which term?
• What does PIR stand for?
• What term describes the line that delineates surface areas for coordination and deconfliction between adjacent units?
• What are the two types of AMCs?
• What is the term for the portion of troops withheld from action at the beginning to be available for a decisive movement?
• What does CCIR stand for?
• Which control measure is an easily identifiable point on the terrain where two or more units are required to make contact?
• MEDEVAC differs from CASEVAC in that MEDEVAC uses what type of transports and staffing?
• What is the purpose of a contact point?
• Which form provides early warning to the protected force but has the least protection?
• Which term describes the type of operation that sets conditions for the success of the decisive operation through effects on the enemy, other actors, and the terrain?
• What is the role of a reconnaissance handover line?
• What cognitive tool helps commanders visualize and describe the application of combat power in time, space, purpose, and resources in the concept of operations?
• What are the 5 control measures?
• Which term is used for information about the threat or operational environment?
• Step 3 of the Engagement Area Development Process is to:
• PIH represents the three dimensions of the operational framework. Which is the correct set?
• Which of the following is NOT a fundamental of recon?
• What are the elements of Commander's Guidance?
• The Reserve is defined as which of the following?
• PIRs are questions about which topics?
• Which statement correctly matches the security type to its level?
• What are the two recon techniques?
• Which line is designated for the transition of responsibility from one unit to another?
• Which of the following is a domain in the five-domain operational framework?
• Where can FFIR be found in an operational order?
• What length of time is a long duration tempo?
• What form of Recon is used when detailed information about a specific route and surrounding terrain is required?
• Which of the following is a fundamental of security?
• Which form of security is described as mission is done independently from the main body and provides Brigade-level, the most protection?
• Operations at any echelon that enable the decisive operation or shaping operations by generating and maintaining combat power are called what?
• Who staffs MEDEVAC transports to provide care en route?
• ASB stands for?
• ACED is an acronym used to denote four operational tenets. Which four terms does ACED stand for?
• Which control measure is used for reconnaissance handover between units?
• Which symbol or term is commonly used to indicate a reconnaissance OP on a map?
• Which form of reconnaissance is used to obtain detailed information about enemy strength, disposition, and reactions and focuses on answering a PIR?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a form of Recon?
• Which of the following is one of the UAS mission sets?
• Which term describes a defensive asset that provides early warning, protection from observation and direct fires, and can operate independently from the main body?
• Which statement about the relationship of security and enabling operations is true?
• How many Army Aviation airframes can conduct or assist in an Air Assault?
• In the risk-based launch approval scheme, what is the correct ascending order of risk levels?
• Which step comes immediately after receiving the mission in the attack planning sequence?
• Operations that set conditions for the success of the decisive operation through effects on the enemy, other actors, and the terrain are called what?
• What term describes the area of concern to the commander including the area of influence, adjacent areas, and extending into enemy territory?
• What is the only type of security that a battalion can perform?
• What is the primary purpose of security in military operations?
• What type of air movement facilitates a tactical mission and has a higher potential threat from enemy forces?
• Which type of air movement expedites movement and minimizes threat of enemy activity?
• Which entity is responsible for coordinating and managing the Air Mission Coordination Meeting and the Air Mission Brief?
• Which form of reconnaissance is designed to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance?
• What is the difference between a screen and a cover?
• When does engagement / disengagement criteria become a factor?
• Aeromedical evacuation in the Army is conducted in accordance with which DoD directive?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamentals of security?
• What does Generic OP refer to in reconnaissance terminology?
• An item of information which reflects the intention or capability of an adversary to adopt or reject a specific course of action is called an:
• What are the three types of recon management?
• Which step is the last in the attack planning process?
• What does Named Areas of Interest (NAI) stand for?
• The Five Steps of Reverse Planning are abbreviated as GLALS. Which option lists these steps in the correct order?
• Which form of security provides early warning, protection from observation and direct fires, and is more robust with increased firepower, typically at squadron size or higher?
• Which of the following is NOT an attack employment method?
• The Aviation Handbook naming convention uses which term as a violent action verb for a control measure area?
• Which battalion is tasked to support in areas such as ground vehicle and aviation maintenance, Signal and Network Support, Aviation and ground sustainment operations for the aviation brigade and distribution management operations within the aviation brigade?
• In aviation handbook naming conventions, which control measure uses the Letters naming convention?
• Which form of security is described as providing early warning, protection from observation, and protection from direct fires, with increased firepower, suitable for squadron-sized elements or higher?
• In reverse planning, which statement best describes the Ground Tactical Plan?
• Which security concept is a priority of work but is NOT a form of security?
• Which type of reconnaissance is used when there is a relatively thorough understanding of the operational environment?
• Which security type provides protection at the brigade or higher level?
• Where is a patient transferred from one ambulance to another en route to a medical treatment facility?
• Which term describes the position from which military observations are made and may fire direct fires?
• Movement of ground forces by rotary wing aircraft to destroy an enemy or seize terrain is called:
• Which of the following is an element of Commander's Guidance?
• What is the act of moving a sick, injured, wounded, or other person to obtain medical treatment called?
• Which movement-to-contact type involves establishing a perimeter around an area to locate and isolate the enemy?
• Utilize _______ when the commander is uncertain of the composition and disposition of enemy forces in their areas of operation.
• Which form of reconnaissance is usually the most time intensive?
• How long is short duration security?
• A target whose loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly COA is called a:
• Which of the following is a type of offensive operation?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed core competency of Army Aviation?
• What type of security is Division or Higher?
• Intertheater patient movement involves moving patients between theaters.
• Which type of reconnaissance uses one or more types of reconnaissance or surveillance systems and directs follow-on collecting of more detailed information by another system?
• Which term is defined as a location that may be staffed or unstaffed where casualties are assembled for evacuation to a medical treatment facility?
• Step 2 of the Engagement Area Development Process is to:
• Which of the following is a type of assigned area used by a land component or ARFOR commander?
• Which statement accurately describes the function of a screen?
• How many categories does the Department of Defense group unmanned aerial systems into?
• For urgent MEDEVAC missions, the company commander may be delegated which level of risk approval authority?
• Air transport of units, personnel, supplies, and equipment is called:
• Which acronym represents the three dimensions of the operational framework?
• Which statement best describes a Phase Line?
• An indicator is defined as:
• Which UAS discussed can carry armament?
• Which location may or may not be staffed, where casualties are assembled for evacuation to a medical treatment facility?
• An offensive operation that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes, and secures terrain, or both is called what?
• Which form of security provides early warning to the protected force but offers the least protection and lacks combat power?
• Special Recon employs military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces.
• Which form of contact listed among the nine forms relates to chemical, biological, radiological, or nuclear threats?
• What are the two measures of local security?
• What kind of operation is security?
• Which set of words correctly completes the acronym CATS as used for offensive characteristics?
• Which control measure is a defensive position oriented on a likely enemy avenue of approach, containing multiple firing positions arrayed around it and is restrictive in nature?
• Which acronym is used when selecting a firing position?
• Which term describes operations that enable the decisive operation by generating and maintaining combat power?
• What term refers to the validation of a medical mission and approval of use of MEDEVAC aircraft by a medical officer?
• Intratheater patient movement refers to moving patients within what area?
• Can AVN independently conduct a Guard?
• Which term describes a designated subordinate unit that supports the success of the main effort?
• What are the first two meetings between the ground force and the supporting aviation unit?
• Which term describes a security priority of work that is not a form of security?
• Which step follows Conduct Reconnaissance in the planning sequence?
• Which is a core competency of a movement to contact or an attack?
• In BRASSCRAFO, which is a consideration related to rotor wash?
• What is an EEFI?
• Which form of security protects routes, installations, and actions within a defined area?
• In reverse planning, which step is considered the most important?
• A large number of casualties produced in a relatively short period that exceeds local logistic support is termed?
• Which statements describe the sub-components of CCIR?
• Which item is not part of the Five Steps of Reverse Planning (GLALS)?
• How many lines of a 9-line MEDEVAC call are required before air assets can launch?
• How many HH-60 helicopters are in a Combat Aviation Brigade (CAB)?
• Which term describes an area broader than the operational area into which a commander can directly influence through maneuver, fire support, and information?
• Which control measure is specifically designated to control air operations?
• Which form of reconnaissance is conducted as a special operation in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance?
• Which control measure is defined as the area where the commander intends to contain and destroy an enemy force with massed effects?
• Which term describes the approval authority for launching MEDEVAC missions in aviation operations?
• Which statement best describes the objective of security?
• In aviation contexts, which form of security encompasses route security, convoy security, and aerial security?
• When do you conduct a Movement to Contact?
• What term describes a body of troops withheld from action at the start to be prepared for a decisive movement?
• How long is long duration security?
• What is the first step in planning an attack?
• Which option is not a recon management type?
• What UAS role is similar to a Pilot-in-Command?
• When does the Air Assault Planning Process begin?
• Who are the grey eagles taskorg'd under?
• Tempo subcomponents are Level of Aggressiveness and Level of Detail. Which option is a subcomponent of Tempo?
• An offensive operation is designed to develop the situation and to establish or regain contact. Which operation matches this description?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a task of an AHB?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the seven core competencies of Army Aviation?
• Which statement is NOT an element of Commander's Guidance?
• What is an air corridor?
• PIRs are associated with Named Areas of Interest (NAIs).
• What term describes the area inclusive of and extending beyond an operational area that encompasses the commander’s area of concern for planning and intelligence activities?
• Which term refers to the removal of a patient by various transport means from a theater of operation to prevent further illness or injury, or to provide disposition?
• Which type of reconnaissance uses two or more different assets and collects against the same intelligence requirement?
• Which form of security offers the most protection and is typically used at brigade level or higher, potentially operating independently from the main body?
• How is security different from reconnaissance?
• Which easily identified feature in the operational area is used for control and coordination of military operations?
• An Observation Post (OP) is best described as a position from which military observations are made, and from which fires may be directed.
• Which control measure uses the Numbers naming convention and designates the place where units will pass through?
• What is the purpose of reconnaissance?
• What type of security is brigade or higher?
• Who has mission authority over grey eagles?
• Which statement correctly describes the roles of the Air Assault Task Force Commander and the Aviation Task Force Commander?
• What is an indicator?
• Which domain is part of the five-domain operational framework that addresses celestial or orbital aspects?
• What term describes the combined arms employment of joint and Army capabilities to create and exploit relative advantages that achieve objectives, defeat enemy forces, and consolidate gains?
• Which factors are considered when selecting a Helicopter Landing Zone?
• For Urgent and Urgent Surgical MEDEVAC missions, MEDEVAC company commanders 'may' be delegated approval at what risk level?
• Who provides medical mission approval for MEDEVAC operations?
• Movement to Contact is used when:
• What is the primary purpose of the Air Control Point (ACP)?
• The movement of patients under medical supervision to and between medical treatment facilities by air transportation is called?
• Who conducts the Designation Board at the discretion of the battalion/squadron commander?
• Which step follows Initiate Movement in the planning steps?
• Which statement best describes Movement to Contact?
• Reconnaissance in Force is primarily used to answer a PIR.
• What term refers to the location where a casualty receives initial injury?
• Which statement best describes Essential Elements of Friendly Information (EEFI)?
• What are the two measures of local security?
• Which type of offensive operation does AVN conduct?
• What is the purpose of the Aircrew Operations Order?
• Which operation directly accomplishes the mission and commander's intent?
• Launch approval for MEDEVAC aircraft requires appropriate Aviation Command level approval based on risk level, which includes levels such as Low-Company and Ex-High-First GO.
• BRASSCRAFO includes a consideration related to lighting conditions. Which option represents this factor?
• Which term describes the timely and effective movement of wounded or ill to and between medical treatment facilities on dedicated medical platforms with en-route care provided by medical personnel?
• Movement to Contact is primarily focused on gaining contact with the enemy.
• Which form of reconnaissance is typically associated with operations in hostile, denied, or diplomatically sensitive environments?
• Which statement best characterizes MEDEVAC?
• FFIRs are requests for updates on which aspect?
• Which of the following may be included as members of the Designation Board?
• Who is responsible for coordinating and managing the Air Mission Coordination Meeting and the Air Mission Brief?